Corruption in the Philippines
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[Editor's Note: For prior note, click here.]

From: Steven J. Wallace
To: 'Nehemias A. Hayuhay'
Cc: Steve Wallace
Sent: Wednesday, March 24, 2004 10:21 AM
Subject: RE: Why?

Yes I believe in the covenant of Jesus and yes it is eternal in the sense of God knowing it from the foundation of the world (cf. Eph. 3:11; 2 Tim. 1:9). But it was not made with ANYONE until Jesus came and died on the tree? Jeremiah looked forward to it in 31:31ff. Do you believe a covenant is in force only after one dies or before(Heb. 9:16, 17)? When did the NEW COVENANT come in force? Was it at creation, at Sinai, at the cross? Please answer this question!

The Jews that I referred to were those who specifically came out of Egypt with Moses and entered into the 10 commandment covenant ratified by the blood of animals. These Jews that remained as a people until the coming of the Lord in the flesh. Those who were baptized into Christ were "neither Jew nor Gentile" afterwards. Christ's law breaks down those barriers and we become simple Christians. Yet, God's law on marriage is for "whoever" and one must first repent of sins (including fornication, adultery, homosexuality) before he can submit in baptism (Acts 2:38).

Now, to the direct point of controversy, do you believe that if a man divorces his wife for any other reason than fornication (a sexual violation of the marriage bed) and marries another that he is in a state of adultery and remains so until he puts and end to that union? Don't dodge the issue because I do not have the time or patience for anyone who wants to.

Let me say that I do appreciate your writing back, however.

Cordially,
Steven J. Wallace

[Editor's Note: For Hayuhay's response, click here.]